DieselShip's Online Content Library

Q1. Discuss the responsibility of flag state under ILO maritime labour convention 2006.

Q5. Explain what is meant by "Dynamical Stability".

Explain how the area under the GZ curve represents dynamical stability for a ship.

Q1. What is a marine high voltage system? Sketch and describe a shipboard high voltage switch board and its protective devices.

Q1. What is understood by risk on board ship? As a 2nd engineer discuss various methods for hazard identification and assessment of risk available on board.

Q5. Sketch and describe the arrangement of a main engine camshaft chain. Describe the repair procedure following fracture of one chain link during operation of the engine. Give possible reasons for the failure and explain how the chain is set initially at the correct degree of tension.

Q1. With regard to care of lubricating oils onboard, answer the following:

(a)  Microbial degradation of lubricating oil and measures to prevent the same

(b)  Methods of ensuring correct sampling is done for the purpose of shore based testing.

(c)  If the shore based testing results show an abnormal values of water content and TBN for the crank case lub oil of a slow speed main engine, what will be interpretation and subsequent action?

Q2. A. Explain how the flow of water around the propeller can result in inducing vibration. B. What are the possible options to reduce effects?

Q2. In the event of a failure of the main electrical power supply on a ship, an emergency source of power must be available.  State the circuits which must be fed from such a source and discuss the reasons governing the selection of such circuits.

Q6. Under Continuous survey of machinery (CSM) bottom end bearing of a large 2stroke slow speed engine is due for survey.

A. As second engineer, explain the procedure involved in complete inspection of a bottom end bearing.

B. List the precaution to be taken.

C. Indicate the reasons for possible defects which could be encountered and state how they may be rectified.

D. What test are carried out on completion of survey and re-assembly.

Q2. What is soft starting of an Induction motor? Describe with a circuit using thyristors used for soft starting. Discuss its advantages and dis-advantages.

Q4. With reference to Main engine piston rings:

(a) Analyze the causes of piston ring breakage.

(b) How maintenance and engine operation can minimize piston ring breakage.

(c) Explain the possible consequences with respect to performance and safety of operating the engine with broken or severely worn piston rings

Q2. A. Describe the procedure to be adopted for the inspection of a safety valve fitted to an exhaust gas fired auxiliary boiler stating, with reasons, which parts should receive particularly close attention.

B. Describe the procedure for the setting of safety valves of exhaust gas operated auxiliary boilers;

C. Explain the required action a watch-keeping engineer should take after the setting of safety valves as in (B)

Q1. Describe the relationship between frictional resistance and

(a) Ship’s speed;

(b) the wetted area;

(c) surface roughness;

(d) The length of the vessel.

Q6. With respect to the hazardous areas of tankers,

A. Explain the term flameproof (Ex d) for electrical equipment;

B. State the type of electrical equipment that would be protected in this way.

C. List likely defects of flameproof equipment.

Q3. Differentiate between half and full wave rectification. State where half wave rectification may be used and the purpose for which it is not well adapted. Sketch a bridge connection by which full wave rectification may be obtained.

Q6. A. State the circumstances owing to which it may be necessary to renew a cylinder liner.

B. Explain how the liner is removed

C. Explain how the new liner is fitted; State the important checks to be made before and after fitting.

Q8. Explain why the use of residual fuels for the operation of large slow speed or of medium speed engines, may be responsible for the following problems with turbocharger nozzles, shrouds and blades and how in each, the problem may be minimized:

A. Build-up of deposits.

B. Hot corrosion.

C. Erosion (16)

Q6. With reference to hydraulic system for deck machinery identify: A. The types of contamination likely to be found in hydraulic systems for deck machinery; B. The sources of such impurities; C. Means used to prevent problems with contamination; D. Possible effects of the oil contamination on the system.

Q5. With reference to oil monitoring of bilge and tanker ballast discharges:

A. Describe with the aid of a sketch the general arrangement of an oil monitoring system;

B.  State the inputs that are recorded;

C. Explain the difficulties encountered with the efficient operation of the monitoring systems.

Q3: With reference to dry docking, define the responsibility of the second engineer;

A. Prior to docking;

B. Whilst the vessel is in dry dock;

C. Prior to flooding and leaving the dock.

Q7. Describe the procedure to be undertaken when, upon a routine schedule for changing fuel injectors on a main engine, It is found that the injector body is seized and cannot be removed by conventional means. How to ascertain whether the cylinder head injector can be used satisfactorily.

Q4. A. Describe with the aid of a simple sketch the arrangement of the three-phase winding of an alternator showing the neutral point.

B. Explain why for most ships the neutral point is insulated.

C. Explain why in some installation the neutral point is earthed?

Q7. Sketch and Discuss the precautions and protections that are provided to minimize the possibility of a diesel engine crank case explosion and the transmission of dangerous flame into the machinery space;

A. By design and equipment; B. By operating personnel

Q6. With reference to electro-hydraulic steering gears:

A. Explain in terms of control parlance, the function of the “Hunting gear”;

B. Explain the consequences if the standby pumping unit is motored;

C. State TWO methods employed to prevent the standby hydraulic pump being motored by the operating unit.

Q5. Explain how the period of roll varies with –

A. The amplitude of roll;

B. The radius of gyration;

C. The initial metacentric height;

D. The location of masses in the ship.

Q3. Explain the principle of port State control and give in detail the verification the Port State Control Officer may carry out with particular reference to the following;

A. Emergency generator; B. Auxiliary steering gear; C. Lifeboat engine; D. Bilge pumps; E. SOPEP.

Q4. Explain the effect of reduced voltage on standard squirrel cage motors with respect to EACH of the following:

(i) Burn out; (ii) Starting current; (iii) Starting torque; (iv) Speed.

Q8. Explain how EACH of the following hull defects should be dealt with;

(a) A cracked weld;

(b) A severe indentation in way of a frame;

(c) Surfaces suffering from general corrosion although the extent of wastage does not warrant plate replacement;

(d) A bilge keel fractured at the forward end.

Q6. A. Explain how and why the performance of reciprocating air compressor tends to “fall off” in service. B. State how “fall off” is indicated and to what extent permissible before correction; C. Describe how optimum performance is restored; D. What is the significance of clearance volume: for reciprocating air compressors.

Q2. A. Sketch and describe a control system for maneuvering a main diesel engine from the bridge

B.  Explain how local control may be effected in case of breakdown of the control system described in 2 (A).

Q6. A. Explain the term angle of loll and state what, if any dangers it poses to a vessel. B. A ship whose length is 110 m has MCTI cm 55 tonne m: TCP9; LCF 1.5 m forward of midships and floats at draughts of 4.20m forward and 4.45m aft. Calculate the new draughts after the following masses have been added, 20 tonne 40 m aft of midships; 50 tonne 23 m aft of midships; 30 tonne 02 m aft of midships; 70 tonne 06 m forward of midships; 15 tonne 30 m forward of midships;

Q9. With reference to chemical tankers:

A. Sketch a suitable cargo pumping and stripping system, labelling the component parts and indicating the direction of fluid flow;

B.  State the requirements of the regulations involved to reduce pollution of the sea by chemical tanker cargoes.

Q6. A. Describe the survey procedure of an oil lubricated stern bearing and shaft. (8)

B. Explain how the integrity of the outboard seal of an oil lubricated stern tube may be proved before the dry-dock is flooded. (8)

Q6. (a). Explain the significance of the root- mean- square value of an alternating current or voltage waveform; Define the form factor of such a wave form.

(b). A total load of 8000 kW at 0.8 power factor is supplied by two alternators in parallel. One alternator supplies 6000 kW at 0.9 power factor. Find the kVA rating of the other alternator and the power factor.

Q4. Enumerate the causes of vibration in diesel machinery and shafting. Describe procedures by which it may be reduced by operating personnel, suitable design and devices. State the possible effects of vibration on machinery and crewmembers.

Q3. A. Explain the causes of the formation of mill scale on steel plate. Describe the preparation necessary before the application of conventional paints to the underwater surface of the hull; C. Describe a coating scheme for the underwater hull using conventional paints.

Q6. A. Sketch a Main Engine air starting system and describe how it operates. B. List the safety devices and interlocks incorporated in such a system and state the purpose of each

Q7. A. Explain what is meant by ‘assigned summer free board’. B. A ship 120m long has draughts of 6.6m forward and 6.9 aft. The TPC is 20, MCTI cm 101 tonne m and the centre of flotation 3.5m aft of midships. Calculate the maximum position aft at which 240 tonne may be added so that the after draught does not exceed 7.2m

Q1. a) What do you understand by the terms Convention, Protocol, Amendments? State in which order these will be adopted by the IMO? (10)

b) What procedure is nowadays followed for putting the amendments into effect? (10)

Q7. A. With the aid of a simple sketch, explain the operation of a basic air-conditioning unit. B. With reference to your sketch, explain the following: - i. How the problem of increase in humidity on cooled air is overcome; ii. How discomfort caused by the excessive drying effect of heated air is overcome. C. Explain how a psychometric chart is used to check conditions.

Q8. A. Sketch an arrangement showing the principal of proportional plus integral (P+I) control loop.

B. Compare the series and parallel resonance circuits. Find the frequency at which the following circuit resonates.

Q5. Name the factors an engine designer considers in the selection of the compression ratio for a compression ignition engine. Give some examples of compression ratio values.

Q1. A. Explain the purpose of the rudder carrier and pintles.

B. The speed of a ship is increased to 18% above normal for 7.5 hours, and then reduced to 9% below normal for 10 hours. The speed is then reduced for the remainder of the day so that the consumption for the day is the normal amount. Find the percentage difference between the distance travelled in that day and the normal distance travelled per day.

Q6. Write short notes on - A. Role of Recognized Organization (Classification Societies) on ship; B. Enhanced survey program (ESP); C. Condition Assessment Scheme (CAS) for oil tankers.

Q8. For a fully automatic provisions refrigeration system incorporating a number of rooms; A. Explain how each room temperature is set;  B. Describe the sequence of events following a demand for increased refrigerant flow from one room;  C. State with reasons the devices incorporated into the system to protect the machinery and equipment against malfunction;  D. State how satisfactory operation of the plant can be established?

Q9. A. Explain the potential hazards if liquid-cooled transformers are used.

B. What are the losses in transformers? Mention the various factors which affect these losses. In a 25 KVA, 3300/233 V, single phase transformer, the iron and full-load Cu. Losses are respectively 350 and 400 watts. Calculate the efficiency at half-full load, 0.8 power factor

Q6. A. State the various types of indicator diagrams that are used to assess engine performance; B. Specify the additional data needed in conjunction with these diagrams; C. Explain, how some abnormalities in indicator diagrams can be traced to the indicator; D. Describe the precautions necessary to avoid indicator malfunctions.

Q7. With reference to auxiliary boiler safety valve:

A. Describe, with aid of a Sketch the safety valves for an auxiliary boiler;

B. Identify, with reasons, the part that require particularly close attention during overhaul;

C. Describe how the safety valves are reset after an overhaul.

Q9. A. Describe the general precautions to be taken against capsizing. State the recommended criteria for passenger and cargo ships.  B. The ½ ordinates of a water plane at 15m intervals, commencing from aft, ar. 1, 7, 10.5, 11, 11, 10.5, 8, 4 and 0m. Calculate: i. TPC; ii. Distance of the centre of flotation from midships; iii. C. Second moment of area of the water plane about a transverse axis through the centre of flotation.

Q9: A new instrument by IMO for the Control and Management of ships Ballast Water and sediments’ will be in force in the near future. In relation to this discuss the following; A. The need for such a convention; B. What are the options available for treatment of Ballast Water, and the methods being used presently; C. What are the responsibility as a flag State and port State?

Q7. Fatigue is one of the main causes of crankshaft failure - A. Indicate on a sketch the most likely location of a fatigue crack; B. Explain how a fatigue failure is identified; C. Describe how a fatigue crack may be initiated; D. Describe, with the aid of sketches, the methods used to inhibit fatigue cracks.

Q9. A. List the factors that determine the starting torque of the three-phase induction motor. How does this torque generally compare with the value of the rated torque?

B. The low-voltage release of an a.c. motor-starter consists of a solenoid into which an iron plunger is drawn against a spring. The resistance of the solenoid is 35 ohm. When connected to a 220 V, 50 Hz, a.c. supply the current taken is at first 2A, and when the plunger is drawn into the “full-in” position the current falls to 0.7 A. Calculate the inductance of the solenoid for both positions of the plunger, and the maximum value of flux-linkages in weber-turns for the “full-in” position of the plunger.

Q7. With reference to the 4-stroke medium speed engines:

A. Define the cause and effect of thermal stressing in cylinder Heads, liners and pistons.

B. Explain why thermal stressing are aggravated with increase in cylinder bore.

C. Explain how stress concentration and its effects are relieved by maintenance and operational practices.

Q1. A. Describe an automatic self de-sludging centrifuge suitable for dealing with fuel of density upto 1010 kg/m3 at 150C;

B. Explain how the centrifuge described in Q4 (a) is able to remove water from a fuel which has a density that is higher than that of water and state factors that may assist the operation.

C. As Second Engineer, write down the start-up procedure for the centrifuge described in Q1 (A) for the benefit of your staff;

D. State how is the problem of catalytic fines in fuel oil may be dealt with.

Q10. Describe with sketches the arrangement of a power operator sliding water light door. B. A watertight bulkhead 7.5m high has vertical stiffeners 0.75m apart, connected at the bottom by brackets having 10 rivets 20mm diameter in each arm. The bulkhead is flooded to the top on one side only with seawater calculate. (i) Shearing force at top and bottom; (ii) Position of zero shear; (iii) Shear stress in the rivets; Draw the load and shearing force diagrams.