DieselShip's Online Content Library

Q1. a) Explain the six types of ship motions along different axes. Discuss the causes of these motions and their impact on the vessel’s stability and performance. (8)

b) Discuss the methods employed to reduce these motions and enhance the vessel’s stability and comfort. (8)

Q1. a) Briefly explain the principle of Operation of Induction Motors (4)

b) What is slip for an induction motor? (4)

c) Draw a simple ladder logic diagram of star delta starting of an induction motor. (8)

Q1. What statutory certificates need to be carried by an Indian flagged chemical tanker? Name the certificates and state the validity of each of the certificates. (20)

Q1. a) Define creep and specify the conditions under which it occurs? (8)

b) Discuss three metallurgical processing techniques that are employed to enhance the creep resistance of metal alloys (8)

Q1. Express your reactions and state the subsequent investigation you would make if a laboratory report on a used diesel engine oil sample indicated the presence of appreciable amounts of: (16)

A. Iron

B. Copper, Antimony and Tin

C. Silicon.

Q1. With reference to main engine tie rod explain.

A. Function (3)

B. Effect on main engine in case slack (3)

C. Identifying slackness (3)

D. Material (3)

E. Tightening procedure. (4)

Q2. Explain the GZ (Righting Arm) curve used in ship stability. Discuss its significance, the information that can be obtained from the curve, and its role in assessing a ship’s stability under various conditions. (16)

Q2. With reference to the Maritime Labour Convention (MLC) 2006, discuss the requirements for seafarers regarding:

a) Young seafarers (5)

b) Seafarer’s Employment agreements (5)

c) Hours of work and hours of rest (5)

d) Social Security requirements. (5)

Q2. (a) State, with reasons, the properties required for a cylinder lubricant for a main engine operating on HFO. (8)

(b) Describe, with the aid of a sketches, an electronically controlled cylinder lubrication system, stating how the timing and quantity of cylinder lubricant is regulated and set. (8)

Q2. a) During an inspection it is noticed that tie rods of certain main engine units have become slack, state with reasons the possible causes of this. (5)

b) Explain how correct tension is restored and the risk of future slackness minimized. (5)

c) A tie rod has fractured and cannot be replaced immediately, State with reasons the course of action to be adopted in order to allow the engine to be operated without further damage. (6)

Q2. What is Zener diode and how does it regulate the voltage? What happens to the series current, load current and Zener current when the d.c. input voltage of a Zener regulator increases? Draw a neat diagram of Zener regulator and explain. (16)

Q2. You have been appointed as second engineer on a crude carrier, recently purchased by your shipping company. The company superintendent requests that you examine the vessel with a view to increasing its deadweight capacity without altering the ship’s length. Outline the suggestions that you would make, justifying your proposals.(16)

Q3. Explain the different types of framing systems used in ship construction. Discuss their design, structural arrangement, and advantages in ensuring the vessel’s strength and stability. (16)

Q3. With regard to ballast water Management Convention, Explain following:

(a) Ballast water exchange standard. (4)

(b) Ballast water Performance standard. (4)

(c) Treatment methods for ballast water. (4)

(d) Approval methods for treatment system using active and non-active substances. (4)

Q3. With reference to fixed CO2 system for fighting machinery space fires:

a) Sketch a CO2 bottled system.

b) How the number of CO2 bottles required for ship is calculated?

c) Explain how the system sketched in part (a) is protected from overpressure.

d) Describe the periodic maintenance required. (16)

Q3. (a) Define the term Torsional Vibration with respect to an engine crankshaft, stating the effect that high levels can have on an engine crankshaft. (6)

(b) Explain how engine deterioration influences the risk of Torsional Vibration, stating what can be done to minimise that risk. (5)

(c) Explain TWO possible reasons for the activation of a Torsional Vibration alarm after an engine has been started if there had been no previous history of such an alarm and if no maintenance had been undertaken on the engine whilst it was stopped. (5)

Q3. Discuss the criteria of the classification of marine high voltage for A-C. and D.C. Systems. Sketch a Ships high voltage distribution system and explain its features. Discuss the various methods of testing the insulation of HV system. Mention the significance of PI Test, why 3 terminals insulation testers are used in HV insulation measurements? (16)

Q3. A. Describe with the aid of sketches where necessary a vane type steering gear showing how to weight of the rudder and stock are carried and the arrangement that allow for wear down. (6)

B. State how the vanes described in (A) are secured and the method of sealing the edges. (5)

C. State how, if necessary, the steering gear is locked for rudder maintenance. (5)

Q4. Explain the cargo hold fire detection system used on ships. Discuss the maintenance procedures for this system and outline the steps taken when a fire is detected in the cargo hold. (20)

Q4. With reference to sleeved keyless propellers:

(a) State with reasons why the following practise are not advisable when removing the propeller from its shaft. (8)

i) Expansion of boss by intense concentrated heating by blow torch.

ii) The use of wedge or jacks.

(b) Describe a system that is used to remove the propeller from its shaft. (8)

Q4. With reference to LNG diesel engine installations:

(a) Describe, with the aid of a sketch, a Gas Valve Unit, explaining its purpose and indicating where it is located in the gas train. (6)

(b) Explain why ventilation and inert gas systems must be installed with the engine fuel gas system. (5)

(c) State why pilot injection must be provided when burning fuel gas, explaining how a pilot injection system works (5)

Q4. (a) List SIX hazards that associated with the carriage of liquefied gas in bulk. (8)

(b) Sketch and describe the details of construction of a free-standing prismatic cargo tank within a gas carrier designed to carry liquefied gas (LPG). (8)

Q4. What are the conditions for producing sustained oscillations? Classify oscillations with respect to frequency range, principle involved, etc. It is possible to produce oscillations with RC networks in phase shift oscillators. Discuss in detail. (16)

Q4. A. State the circumstances owing to which it may be necessary to renew an exhaust valve. (5)

B. Explain how the exhaust valve is removed and fitted back. (6)

C. State the important checks to be made on the engine before after fitting the exhaust valve. (5)

Q5. a) With reference to fatigue of hull structures explain the influence of stress level and cyclical frequency on expected operating life. (6)

b) Explain the influence of material defects on the safe operating life of forged components of stern fittings. (5)

c) State the factors which influence the possibility of fatigue cracking of a bed-plate transverse girder and explain how the risk of such cracking can be minimized. (5)

Q5. Explain the OPRC (Oil Pollution Preparedness, Response and Cooperation) Convention. Discuss the responsibilities of the Flag State under this convention and list the documents required to be carried on board ship as per its provisions. (20)

Q5. a) Identify the factor, which could be responsible for initiation and propagation of explosions in air starting systems. (4)

b) Explain how the possibility of an explosion in an air start system is minimized.  (4)

c) Describe the devices required for air start systems, which are intended to dissipate the energy of an explosion. (4)

d) Suggest why one type of safety addition, although appearing to operate correctly, may not prevent a server air start line explosion and loss of life. (4)

Q5. A. Describe THREE different patterns of tube used in exhaust gas boilers. (4)

B. Give reasons why a tube is condemned. (4)

C. Describe how it is replaced by a spare tube. (4)

D. Suggest with reasons the possible consequences of allowing an exhaust gas boiler to run dry during full power operation of the main engine. (4)

Q5. What is soft starting of an Induction motor? Describe with a circuit using thyristors used for soft starting. Discuss its advantages and dis-advantages. (16)

Q5. As second engineer onboard a tanker, describe the preparation and procedure for presenting a Main Boiler for survey by a classification society by the shipboard staff? (16)

Q6. a) List the variables which affect the force on a rudder. (6)

b) A triangular bulkhead is 7 m wide at the top and has a vertical depth of 8 m. Calculate the load on the bulkhead and the position of centre of pressure if the bulkhead is flooded with sea water on only side.

(i) to the top edge

(ii) with 4 m head to the top edge. (10)

Q6. a) Describe International protection rating and types of insulation. (6)

B. A 72 KVA transformer supplies a heating and lighting load of 12 KW at unity power factor and a motor load of 70 kVA at 0.766 (lagging) power factor: Calculate the minimum rating of the power-factor improvement capacitors which must be connected in the circuit the ensure that the transformer does not become overloaded. (10)

Q6. a) Sketch an outboard type of oil seal suitable for oil filled stern tube indicating the principal component. (5)

b) Explain how the seal compensated for wear of the seal face maintains oil tightness. (4)

c) What is the effect of seawater contamination of stern tube oil and how contamination risk can be reduced? (3)

d) State the physical properties required for the bearing material in oil filled stern tube. (4)

Q3. With reference to “ISM Code” write short notes on:

A. Masters Review,

B. Requirement and Advantages of Familiarization of seafarer onboard,

C. Designated Person Ashore (DPA)

D. Functional requirements for a Safety Management System.

Q5. Give a list of the properties or tests by which distillate and blended fuels may be specified or decisions be made on their fitness for use. Name the properties or constituents that may be found in a blended fuel having a high viscosity and high carbon content. Explain how they may cause problems in engine operation

Q6. A. Describe the preparation necessary before the application (in dry dock) of sophisticated or approved long life coating to the underwater surface of the hull. (6)

B. State the significance of the roughness profile. (5)

C. List the different sophisticated coatings which are available. (5)

Q7. A. Explain the effect on GM during the filing of a double – bottom tank. (6)

B. An oil tanker 160m long and 22m beam floats at a draught of 9m in seawater. Cw is 0.865. The midships section is in the form of a rectangle with 1.2m radius at the bilges. A midships tank 10.5m long has twin longitudinal bulkheads and contains oil of 1.4 m3/t to a depth of 11.5m. The tank is holed to the sea for the whole of its transverse section. Find the new draught. (10)

Q7. a) Explain with a sketch the operation of an automatic expansion valve as fitted in the direct expansion refrigeration plants. How is this valve adjusted? (6)

b) Explain how critical temperature restricts plant operation and how these limitations can be overcome? (5)

c) Explain how this system maintains the provision rooms at different temperatures? (5)

Q6.a) Draw and Explain flammability diagram. (5)

b) What is critical dilution in flammability diagram? (5)

c) How does inert gas reduce flammability range (5)

d) Describe purging and gas freeing operation of cargo tank in Crude Oil Tanker. (5)

Q7. For a fully automatic provisions refrigeration system incorporating a number of rooms.

A. Explain how each room temperature is set. (4)

B. Describe the sequence of events following a demand for increased refrigerant flow from one room. (4)

C. State with reasons the devices incorporated into the system to protect the machinery and equipment against malfunction. (4)

D. State how satisfactory operation of the plant can be established? (4)

Q7. A. Which of the following three motors has the poorest speed regulation: shunt motor, series Motor or cumulative compound motor? Explain.

B. A 440V shunt motor takes an armature current of 30A at 700 rev/min. The armature resistance is 0.7ohm. If the flux is suddenly reduced by 20 per cent, to what value will the armature current rise momentarily? Assuming unchanged resisting torque to motion, what will be the new steady values of speed and armature current? Sketch graphs showing armature current and speed as functions of time during the transition from initial to final, steady-state conditions.

Q7. Evaluate the influence of the following factors upon cylinder and piston ring wear rates. (16)

A. Position of rings in relation to piston crown.

B. Spread and proximity of coolant passages from liner wall.

C. Flow rate and specific heat of coolant.

D. Chromium plating of ring faces.

Q8. a) (i) Describe with the aid of a sketch, one section of a large slow speed engine crankshaft which has been assembled by shrinkage of webs onto journal pins. (4)

(ii) Explain how a five-degree twist might be caused to a shaft assembled by shrinkage. (4)

b) State the possible effects of a five - degree twist in the crankshaft assembly and draw conclusions as to whether the engine should be operated and any adjustments that may be necessary for continued operation. Assume that the incident has occurred at a port with no repair facilities. (8)

Q8. a) Explain why pilot injection is required for a Dual fuel engine when burning natural gas. (8)

b) Describe, with the aid of a sketch, the arrangements for a dual fuel engine which is capable of burning natural gas on

a) The Otto cycle.

b) The Diesel cycle. (8)

Q8. A. What is meant by the Admiralty Coefficient and the Fuel Coefficient? (6)

B. A ship of 14900 tonne displacement has a shaft power of 4460 kW at 14.55 knots. The shaft power is reduced to 4120 kW and the fuel consumption at the same displacement is 541 kg/h. Calculate the fuel coefficient for the ship. (10)

Q2. A. Briefly describe the environmental impact of NOx and SOx and allowable limitations as per Annex VI of MARPOL in emission control areas and outside emission control areas.

B. Briefly describe methods to control NOx emission.

Q8. As a second engineer, list out all the hazards identified with regard to cylinder head lifting job during main engine overhaul. Explain how do you carry out risk assessment for above mentioned job. (16)

Q8. A. What is back emf? Derive the relation for the back emf and the supplied voltage in terms of armature resistance.

B. A three- phase induction motor is wound for four poles and is supplied from a 50 Hz system. Calculate.

i. The synchronous speed; (4)

ii. The speed of the rotor when the slip is 4 per cent; (3)

iii. The rotor frequency when the speed of the rotor is 600 r/min. (2)

Q9. A) Describe the stability requirements of a ship for dry-docking. (6)

B) The ½ ordinates of a waterplane at 15m intervals, commencing from aft, are 1, 7, 10.5, 11, 11, 10.5, 8, 4 and 0m. Calculate:

(a) TPC.

(b) Distance of the centre of flotation from midships.

(c) Second moment of area of the water plane about a transverse axis through the centre of flotation. (10)

Q9. Discuss the causes of corrosion in seawater pipelines on ships and methods used to prevent it. Explain in detail the systems implemented for corrosion prevention. (16)

Q7. a) Describe the purpose of type approval for oily water separators (OWS) on ships. What criteria must an OWS meet to receive type approval, and why is this important for marine environmental compliance? (10)

b) Explain the main difference between the MEPC 60(33) and MEPC 107(49) standards for oily water separators. How did the updates in MEPC 107(49) enhance the performance requirements and monitoring capabilities for oily water separation, and what additional compliance measures were introduced? (10)

Q9. A. What are the factors which determine the synchronous speed of a motor? (6)

B. Three conductors fitted side by side in the stator of a salient-pole alternator. Each generates maximum voltage of 200V (sinusoidal). The angle subtended at the centre of the stator between adjacent conductors is 20 electrical degrees. If the three conductors are connected in series, find (i) the r.m.s. value of the effective voltage and (ii) the ‘breadth factor’. Using the theory that is the basis of this problem, give one reason why three-phase current has been introduced. (10)

Q9. (a) Why is the axial clearance of a main thrust bearing an important dimension? (6)

(b) How is this clearance measured? (6)

(c) Describe how the thrust pads are removed for inspection and state what you would look for in particular. (4)

Q9. Describe with a sketch a pneumatic relay and show how feedback can be achieved when such a relay is used in conjunction with a flapper mechanism. (16)

Q10. a) Describe the effect of cavitations on the propeller blades. (6)

b) The following data are available from the hydrostatic curves of a vessel.

Calculate the TPC at a draught of 5.05m. (10)

Q10. A. Compare the effectiveness of a current limiting circuit breaker with that of a HRC fuse. (6)

B. A coil having a resistance of 10 Ohm, and an inductance of 0.15 H is connected in series with a capacitor across a 100 V, 50 Hz supply. If the current and the voltage are in phase what will be the value of the current in the circuit and the voltage drop across the coil? (10)