DieselShip's Online Content Library

Q1. a) State the reasons for the freeboard requirement. (6)

b) Explain the term condition of assignment and explain how these are maintained for a ship. (5)

c) What is the difference between a Type “A” and a Type “B” ship. (5)

Q1. Petroleum vapours are dangerous substances and when mixed with air can be ignited.

a) i) Sketch an explosimeter or combustion gas indicator which can be used to check the atmosphere of a tank or pumproom. (8)

ii) Describe the explosimeter and its operation (3)

iii) State one reason that may cause the explosimeter to give a false reading (3)

b) For flammable mixtures, explain the meaning of the terms lower and upper flammable limits. (6)

Q1. Marine diesel engines run on the diesel cycle. With the introduction of natural gas as marine fuel, Otto cycle is also employed in some engines. Explain the difference between the two cycles and elaborate on the suitability of natural gas as a fuel in such engines. (16)

Q1. With reference to a three-phase shipboard electrical distribution system: (16)

a) Enumerate the advantages of an insulated neutral system.

b) Enumerate the disadvantages of an insulated neutral system.

c) Describe how the earthed neutral system is Earthed.

d) Compare the use of an insulated neutral system as opposed to the use of an Earthed neutral System with regard to the risk of electric shock from either system.

Q1. Describe briefly the methods of carrying out a bend test and an impact test. Illustrate the general form of the test pieces used and state how the final results are given for comparison of different materials. Of what practical use are the figures obtained?

Q1. You have been appointed as Second Engineer of an older vessel which is in dry-dock and recently been purchased by your shipping company. Describe, in detail about your inspection, to ensure that the equipment’s on-board ship related to safety equipment survey are satisfactorily complied with. (16)

Q2. With respect to MARPOL 73/78, Annex - II, Noxious liquid chemicals are divided into categories.

a) State the number of categories, and what does each category signify. (7)

b) State the requirement of Procedures and Arrangements Manual, and what information is available. (7)

c) What are the latest amendments in IBC code. (6)

Q1. A. Sketch the cross-section of a bulk carrier with either deep or shallow double bottom showing the type of framing used;

B. Describe the corrosion problems experienced with ballast tanks;

C. state how such tanks are protected against extensive corrosion.

Q2. a) i. Describe the characteristics of a D.C motor. (8)

ii. Explain the advantages of such a motor for deck machinery.

b) Describe with the aid of a sketch a control system for the motor in (A). (8)

Q2. As a second engineer, you are required to offer for survey, to a Classification Society, a crosshead of the engine following an unscheduled repair due to bearing failure.

A. Outline the information you would be required to provide prior to the survey. (6)

B. Briefly describe the survey procedure likely to be adopted stating with reasons the areas which should receive close attention. (5)

C. State with reasons what information would be requested by the surveyor and /or the operation required to be observed after re-assembly of the crosshead. (5)

Q8. Explain why the use of residual fuels for the operation of large slow speed or of medium speed engines, may be responsible for the following problems with turbocharger nozzles, shrouds and blades and how in each, the problem may be minimized:

A. Build-up of deposits.

B. Hot corrosion.

C. Erosion (16)

Q2. Sketch a high-lift safety-valve lid and seat detailing their special features. Describe how such a valve is overhauled and any clearance that should be measured and noted. (16)

Q5. With reference to main air turbochargers:

a) Give a reason why binding wire is frequently fitted near the top of the blades

b) Mention one fault that occasionally develops with binding wire in services,

c) Define the cause and identification under running conditions of turbine blade damage

d) State how (c) can be largely avoided.

Q3. With reference to Annex VI of MARPOL, what are the salient features of
a) EEDI (Energy efficiency design index) (5)
b) EEOI (Energy Efficiency Operational Indicator) (5)
c) Enhanced SEEMP (Ship Energy Efficiency Management Plan) (5)
d) CII (Carbon Intensity Indicator) (5)

Q3. a) With the aid of a sketch describe the method of attachment for a bilge keel and hence explain what protection is made to reduce the possibility of the shell being punctured in the event of damage to the keel. (6)

b) State why the keel does not extend for the length of the ship. (5)

c) Evaluate the effectiveness of bilge keels for large wall sided vessels. (5)

Q3. List at least two factors that cause deterioration of the frequency response of a transistor amplifier. Explain how each factor affects the performance of the amplifier and the portion of the frequency range where it is effective. (16)

Q9. a). If an auxiliary diesel generator over-speeds and runs away while off the load, explain: - i. How it can be stopped,

ii. What is likely to be the reasons for the failure.

b). Give-details of what cheeks are made after the machine has been stopped:

 (i) Mechanically,                            (ii) Electrically.

Q3. A. Sketch and describe TWO methods that employ manometric means for measuring tank contents. (6)

B. State what corrections are made to the readings obtained by the methods described in (A) in order to gauge the mass contents? (5)

C. Explain how bunkering requirements may be estimated when no records of main engine fuel consumption are available on board. (5)

Q4. Explain how PSC is different from FSC/FSI? Discuss Clear Grounds under SOLAS, MARPOL and the STCW with examples. (20)

Q4. Explain each of the following:

A. Why wear down in main bearings is critical to the condition of the crankshaft and propeller shaft system.

B. Why total reliance is placed on frictional grip in conventional built up crankshaft

C. Why hole oils are given large fillets in crankpin and journals.

Q4. a) Draw a simple line diagram of the bow of a ship to show the position of the following component parts of the ships anchoring system.  Hawse pipe, Cable stopper, Windlass and Cable lifter, Spurling pipe and Chain locker. (4)

b) Describe the cable stopper and state its purpose. (4)

c) Show by means of a sketch how the anchor cable is attached to the ship. (4)

d) Describe how the chain locker is drained of water, sand and mud. (4)

Q4. In a situation where the main engine control system suddenly fails, and it is not possible to rectify this immediately

A. Explain the action that a 2nd engineer should take. (8)

B. State the instruction that the 2nd engineer should issue in order to ensure the continued safe and effective operation of the engine. (8)

Q4. Differentiate with the aid of simple sketches between two of the following types of electronic circuits.

A. Rectifier circuit (6)

B. Amplifier circuit (5)

C. Oscillator circuit (5)

Q4. Sketch a sealing arrangement for an oil lubricated stern tube.

a) Identify the common forms of seal failure. (6)

b) State how oil loss due to seal failure can be restricted whilst on passage. (5)

c) What is the material used for sealing rings and propeller shaft liner? (5)

Q5. A. With reference to fatigue of engineering components explain the influence of stress level and cyclical frequency on expected operating life. (6)

B. Explain the influence of material defects on the safe operating life of an engineering component. (5)

C. State the factors which influence the possibility of fatigue cracking of a bed-plate transverse girder and explain how the risk of such cracking can be minimized. (5)

Q2. With reference to membrane tanks for the carriage of liquefied gas at very low temperatures.

a) Describe with a sketch one method of building up the insulation. (6)

b) State which alloy is used for the membrane and the reason. (5)

c) Explain why a secondary barrier is installed. (5)

Q9. a) State why onboard testing of fuel oil whilst taking bunkers can be advantageous. (4)

b) State how a representative fuel sample may be obtained during the bunkering operation. (4)

c) Explain how EACH of the following is formed during the combustion of fuel: - (4)

(i) Oxides of Nitrogen, NOx (ii) Carbon Monoxide, CO (iii) Oxides of Sulphur, SOx

d) State how the effects of sulphurous products of combustion on the engine system may be reduced.

Q5. Discuss the following with respect to International Safety Management (ISM) code:

a) Emergency preparedness, drills and training. (7)

b) Reporting of near miss, non-conformities, accidents/incidents and hazardous occurrences. (7)

c) Risk assessment Identification of critical equipment, tests and minimum spares requirement. (6)

Q1. A) Describe the circuit breaker for an A.C. generator using a sketch to show how arcing is controlled. (6)

(B) Explain the sequence of events that might occur if the breaker opens on a short circuit and state the check you would require following such event. (5)

(C) Give a safe procedure to follow should a main circuit breaker fail to open under fault Condition. (5)

Q5. With reference to crankcase diaphragm glands: Explain why effectiveness deteriorates in service.

A. Describe the procedure for renewal of parts so that efficiency is restored. (6)

B. Describe how effectiveness is restored if spares are unavailable. (5)

C. Explain the functions of the upper and lower sections. (5)

Q1. A) Explain with a simple sketch the principle of a hybrid turbo charger, what are the advantages? What are the challenges? (8)

b) Discuss the statement in detail, “Hybrid turbo charger will improve overall plant efficiency”(8)

Q6. Discuss on the following with respect AFS Convention:

a) Salient features and benefits of AFS Convention (5)

b) Benefits of new generation TBT free paints (5)

c) Survey and certification requirements for vessels GT 400 and above. (5)

d) Survey and certification requirements for vessels GT less than 400. (5)

Q6. a) Describe how the distribution of mass within the ship affects the rolling period. (6)

b) The righting moments of a ship at angles of heel of 0, 15°, 30°, 45°, and 60° are 0, 1690, 5430, 9360 and 9140 kN-m respectively. Calculate the dynamical stability at 60°. (10)

Q6. A. Describe the survey procedure of an oil lubricated stern bearing and shaft. (8)

B. Explain how the integrity of the outboard seal of an oil lubricated stern tube may be proved before the dry-dock is flooded. (8)

Q6. A. Explain what is meant by the terms wave form, frequency and average value. (6)

B. A moving coil ammeter, a thermal ammeter and a rectifier are connected in series with a resistor across a 110 V sinusoidal a.c. supply. The circuit has a resistance of 50 𝛀 to current in one direction and, due to the rectifier, an infinite resistance to current in the reverse direction. Calculate:

(i) The readings on the ammeters.

(ii) The form and peak factors of the current wave. (10)

Q6. With respect to tankers describes: - (16)

A. How a pump room is ventilated?

B. How cargo tanks are ventilated?

C. Cargo tank protection as per SOLAS 1974.

D. Additional alarms provided for inert gas systems of the ‘inert gas generator’ type.

Q3. a) Describe the Inspection and maintenance of flameproof enclosures for luminaries installed in hazardous condition. (10)

b) List the precautions to be taken while carrying out insulation resistance test of electrical equipment located in a hazardous area. (6)

Q7. a) Describe briefly the significance of the factor of subdivision. (6)

b) A ship 120m long has a light displacement of 4000 tonne and LCG in this condition 2.5m aft of midships.  (10)

The following items are then added:

Cargo    10000 tonne      LCG 3.0 m          forward of midships

Fuel      1500 tonne        LCG 2.0 m          aft of midships

Water    400 tonne          LCG 8.0 m          aft of midships

Stores   100 tonne          LCG 10.0m         forward of midships

Using the following hydrostatic data, calculate the final draughts:

Q8. With reference to shaft alignment:

(a) Explain the meaning of fair curve or rational alignment;

(b) Shaft alignment is often verified using hydraulic jacks to obtain a simple graph. Sketch such a graph, indicating the following:

(i) Static load;

(ii) Hysteresis;

(iii) Influence number;

(c) Explain the limitations of checking shaft alignment solely by hydraulic jacking methods.

Q7. a) State where information can be obtained with regard to the safe carriage of hazardous substances as cargo. (8)

B. For a hazardous cargo of your choice discuss the following. (12)

i) Storage and transport.

ii) Hazardous properties.

iii) Firefighting and suppression techniques.

iv) Medical effects and treatment after physical contact with the cargo.

Q7. A. What is leakage flux as it applies to the iron-core transformer? How is it taken into account in the analysis of the transformer? (6)

B. The following results were obtained on a 50 KVA transformer: open circuit test-primary voltage, 3300 V; secondary voltage, 415 V; primary power, 430 W. Short circuit test-primary voltage, 124 V; primary current, 15.3 A; primary power, 525 W; secondary current, full load value. Calculate:

(i) The efficiencies at full load and at half load for 0.7 power factor

(ii) The Voltage regulations for power factor 0.7 (i) Lagging, (ii) Leading

(iii) The secondary terminal voltages corresponding to (i) and (ii). (10)

Q9. If a main engine piston seizes in its liner at sea and it is not possible to replace the unit, explain, in detail, what provisions are made in the engine, to enable the ship to reach port?

Q8. a) State the reasons for persistent slackening of holding down bolts of a main engine. (6)

b) i) State the advantages of using non-metallic choking for main engines. (5)

ii) State precautions to be observed when fitting non-metallic chocks in order to ensure accurate chocking. (5)

Q8. What are the core features of the FSS Code? (International fire safety systems code). Elaborate on any one test prescribed by the Code. (20)

Q8. A) Explain how the distribution of masses affects rolling and pitching. (6)

B) A ship turns in a circle of radius 100 metres at a speed of 15 knots. The GM is 2/3 metres and BG is 1 metre. If g = 981 cm/sec2 and 1 knot is equal to 1.8532 Km/hour, find the heel due to turning. (10)

Q8. A. What is Silicon controlled rectifier (SCR)? How is the breakover voltage of the SCR defined? (6)

B. A d.c. motor takes an armature current of 110 A at 480 V. The resistance of the armature circuit is 0.2𝛀. The machine has six poles and the armature is lap-connected with 864 conductors. The flux per pole is 0.05 Wb. Calculate: (a) The speed; (b) The gross torque developed by the armature. (10)

Q9: A heavy Oil purifier vibrates badly when just shutting down and coming to a stop. Suggest some reasons for this vibration problem, when you have already made an inspection of its drive mechanism and casing and found nothing unusual.

Q8. With reference to oil/water separators:

A. Describe with the aid of a sketch, the working of such a separator. (6)

B. Explain the consequence if the interface detector position is incorrect. (5)

C. Enumerate the various possibilities by which oil / water interface can be moved. (6)

Q9. A. List the factors that determine the maximum developed torque of the induction motor. (6)

B. The primary and secondary windings of a 500 KVA transformer have resistance of 0.42 Ω and 0.0019 Ω respectively. The primary and secondary voltages are 11000 V and 415 V respectively and the core loss is 2.9 kW, assuming the power factor of the load to be 0.8. Calculate the efficiency on (i) Full load (ii) Half load. (10)

Q7. Analyse the problem of cylinder liner lubrication with reference to oil injection timing relative to piston position, speed and direction of motion. Describe the worst effects of inaccurate lubricant injection timing and how it can have a detrimental effect on developed power in the cylinder. Describe with sketches the arrangement for conveying the oil through the cylinder jacket. (16)

Q8. What is a “Cam"? Explain its function. With reference to its application in diesel engines

Discuss the requirement and the type of cam used in

a) Fuel Pump

b) Indicator drive

c) Inlet Valve

d) Exhaust Valve

e) Starting air distributor. (16)

Q9. With reference to a recent ILO notice on the health hazards from asbestos.

a) State where asbestos may be found on board ship. (6)

b) State the health risks from asbestos. (7)

c) Outline the precautions necessary to minimize exposure to asbestos during an emergency repair. (7)

Q9. A) Describe the effect of cavitations on the propeller blades. (6)

B) A propeller 4.6m diameter has a pitch of 4.3m and boss diameter of 0.75 m. The real slip is 28% at 95 rev/min. Calculate the speed of advance, thrust and thrust power.  (10)

Q8. A. State the advantages of using steam turbine propulsion power for vessels carrying LNG cargo. B. With regard to the use of L.N.G. cargo as boiler fuel explain: (i)The safety precautions relating to the gas pipeline supplying the boiler and burning the gas in the boiler, (ii) The means of getting rid of “excess gases” during loading or discharge.

Q10. A) Describe the stability requirements of a ship for dry-docking. (6)

B) A ship 130m long displaces 14000 tonne when floating at draughts of 7.5m forward and 8.10m aft. GML – 125m, TPC – 18, LCF-3m aft of midships. Calculate the final draughts when a mass of 180 tonne lying 40m aft of midships is removed from the ship. (10)

Q10. A 100 kW, 460 V shunt generator was run as a motor on no load at its rated voltage and speed. The total current taken was 9.8 A, including a shunt current of 2.7 A. The resistance of the armature circuit at normal working temperature was 0.11  Calculate the efficiencies at i. Full load; ii. Half load. (16)