DieselShip's Online Content Library

Q9. With reference to a lifeboat gravity davit arrangement: A. Sketch the arrangement showing the lifeboat both in the housed position and at its maximum point of outboard travel; B. Describe the lowering and raising of life boat stating the safety features and the requirement as per SOLAS 74, with respect to time for hoisting.

Q4. A. Describe a method of the attachment of bilge keels;

B. State THREE reasons for not extending bilge keels the entire length of the vessel;

C. Evaluate the effectiveness of bilge keels for large wall sided vessels;

D. Explain TWO principles of roll damping those bilge keels exploit.

Q1. A. Sketch a main engine shaft driven generator arrangement with an electronic system for frequency correction.  B. Describe the operation of the generator arrangement sketched in (A).

Q1. The vessel of which you are 2nd engineer suffers grounding. Describe the survey and inspection which you will carry out at the next dry docking of the vessel in a foreign port.

Q1. With reference to a particular make of main propulsion unit, describe how the engine is reversed manually and discuss the problems involved and the safety precautions which would be required if the control were operated remote from the machinery space.

Q2. A. Describe the procedure to be adopted for the inspection of a safety valve fitted to an exhaust gas fired auxiliary boiler stating, with reasons, which parts should receive particularly close attention.

B. Describe the procedure for the setting of safety valves of exhaust gas operated auxiliary boilers;

C. Explain the required action a watch-keeping engineer should take after the setting of safety valves as in (B)

Q2. With reference to fixed installation for dealing with a machinery space fire: A. Describe with an aid of a sketch a typical installation; B. Explain the testing procedure for the equipment; C. Outline the testing procedure for i. Remote shut down; ii. Other equipment to be used in the event of the engine room fire.

Q3: With reference to dry docking, define the responsibility of the second engineer;

A. Prior to docking;

B. Whilst the vessel is in dry dock;

C. Prior to flooding and leaving the dock.

Q5. With reference to electronic control systems A. Draw a simple block diagram for temperature control B. Describe each component shown in the diagram in (a).

Q6. A. Describe the survey procedure of an oil lubricated stern bearing and shaft. (8)

B. Explain how the integrity of the outboard seal of an oil lubricated stern tube may be proved before the dry-dock is flooded. (8)

Q4. A. Discuss the various types of indicator diagrams and discuss the relevance of this method of determining engine performance.

B. Suggest how engine performance may be assessed other than by taking indicator cards.

Q4: An auxiliary engine exhibits a tendency to hunt to such an extent that the engine speed variation prohibits the connection of the machine to the switchboard. (a) Discuss the possible causes of hunting. (b) Explain how the problem of hunting can be rectified.

Q3. A. Sketch a line diagram showing a typical ‘Inert Gas System’ used for inerting the cargo tanks of oil tankers, labelling the component parts; B. Describe the system; C. State what Oxygen content you would expect in the flue gases if good combustion is achieved.

Q1. With reference to International Load Line Statutory Certification,

A. State the reasons for the freeboard requirements;

B. (i) Explain the term “conditions of assignments”;

(ii) List the items that may be examined during a Load line survey after a vessel’s major repairs in the dry-dock.

Q6. A. Sketch and describe the construction and operation a life boat which handbrake and centrifugal brake. B. What maintenance do the brakes require? C. At what lowering velocity does the centrifugal brake operate?

Q2.  Sketch a circuit diagram for an automatic voltage regulator illustrating how the A.V.R. utilizes a Silicon-controlled rectifier to control the excitation system for an alternator.

Describe how the A.V.R. monitors output and controls the excitation system.

Q3. With reference to large starting air receivers: A. Explain where corrosion is likely to occur and state why it occurs in these regions: B. State the how the incidence of corrosion in air receivers might be minimized; C. If serious corrosion is detected in a starting air receiver and that receiver must be used explain how you, as Second Engineer, would determine the maximum pressure to which the receiver should be subjected; D. State the further action a Chief engineer must take upon discovering such air receiver corrosion.

Q1. A. Describe an automatic self de-sludging centrifuge suitable for dealing with fuel of density upto 1010 kg/m3 at 150C;

B. Explain how the centrifuge described in Q4 (a) is able to remove water from a fuel which has a density that is higher than that of water and state factors that may assist the operation.

C. As Second Engineer, write down the start-up procedure for the centrifuge described in Q1 (A) for the benefit of your staff;

D. State how is the problem of catalytic fines in fuel oil may be dealt with.

Q4. A. Sketch and describe a bilge oil separator with controls and alarm; B. Also, mention – briefly the international regulations made to prevent the pollution hazard; C. Sources from which oil may be mixed in ballast and bilge water.

Q2. State how and why the following machinery items are effected when the maximum service speed of a Vessel is consistently maintained in heavy weather.

A. Intermediate shafting,

B. Propeller shafting,

C. Shafting coupling bolts,

D. Main thrust pads.

Q4. It is proposed to operate a bow thruster’s unit from a 3.3 KV electrical supply outline suitable option for the design of installation under each of the following heading. Protection of main switch board Overload of a bow thrusters motor Cable protection.

Q7. Describe an air receiver and explain clearly the purpose of the mounting. State the defects which may develop and explain the precaution which should be taken to minimize the possibility of deterioration OR damage of air receiver

Q6. A. Describe how a crank pin bearing of a 2 stroke main propulsion engine is opened up for inspection;

B. Which half of the bearing is subject to greater wear?

C. What are the various causes of wear down of the bearing.

Q4. With reference to hydraulic steering gears, sketch and describe each of the following: (A)Single failure concept;

(B)100 Percent redundancy.

Q2. A. Describe the arrangement made in a main structural bulkhead for a watertight door aperture; B. Explain a procedure for ensuring that sliding watertight doors are operated safely. C. Differentiate between the categories of watertight door and state the regulation pertaining each type.

Q6. With reference to the pumping of cargo tanks of chemical tankers - A. Sketch and describe an arrangement used with the cargo pump or independently of the pump, to facilitate tank drainage; B. State significant regulation which will assist in reducing pollution of sea by chemical cargoes.

Q5. With reference to a three-phase shipboard electrical distribution system: A. Enumerate the advantages of an insulated neutral system; B. Enumerate the disadvantages of an insulated neutral system; C. Describe how the earthed neutral system is Earthed; D. Compare the use of an insulated neutral system as opposed to the use of an Earthed Neutral System with regard to the risk of electric shock from either system.

Q5: A. Give three reasons why cracks occasionally develop in large piston crown. State to what extent this cracking is considered of consequence; B. State how it is dealt with in the following instances - Fine hairline; Localised and shallow crack,

Q7. A. State, with reasons, THREE properties required of crankcase oil which is to be used for a trunk piston main engine.

B. Explain how a representative sample of crankcase oil would be obtained from a trunk piston engine. C. Briefly describe the action to be taken if the crankcase oil charge cannot immediately be replaced and analysis shows – (i) Water is present; (ii) Alkalinity has fallen; (iii) Viscosity has changed appreciably; (iv) Carbon content has increased.

Q5. A. State why fixed pitch propellers have a poor efficiency when going astern.

B. With reference to controllable pitch propellers state:

i. Why is it preferable that the main servomotor be housed in the propeller hub rather than in the shafting forward of the propeller shaft?

ii. What regular maintenance and checks should be carried out to ensure maximum reliability of the gear at all times?

Q5. With reference to the following two types of dispersants explain what they are, and where are used: A. Conventional dispersant; B. Concentrate dispersant.

Q9. A propeller has a pitch ratio of 0.95. When turning at 120 rev/min the real slip is 30%, the wake fraction 0.28 and the ship speed 16 knots. The thrust is found to be 400 KN, the torque 270 KN-m and the QPC 0.67. Calculate:

i. The propeller diameter;

ii. The shaft power;

iii the propeller efficiency;

iv. The thrust deduction factor.

Q5. With reference to air receivers and bottles explain with reasons: A. Why regular systematic internal inspection is advisable? B. Which internal areas of large receivers should receive particularly close examination? C. How bottles are inspected internally and what parts should be closely examined? D. How the condition of a bottle or receiver that cannot be inspected internally is checked?

Q6. A. What are the characteristics of PN junction diode? Point out its specifications. Also point out the significance of dynamic and static resistances.

B. Draw the circuit of Half-wave rectifier and its output waveform. A diode whose internal resistance is 20 is to supply power to 1000 load from 110 V (RMS) source. Calculate

(i) peak load current, (ii) DC load current, (iii) AC load current.

Q6. Evaluate the influence of the following factors upon cylinder and piston ring wear rates; A. Position of rings in relation to piston crown; B. Spread and proximity of coolant passages from liner wall; C. Flow rate and specific heat of coolant; D. Chromium plating of ring faces.

Q3. Sketch and describe a boiler water level controller of the float operated type. State the reasons for having this mechanism on the boiler and using this controller and boiler for analogy explain the following terms.

A. Detecting element

B. Servo motor

C. Desired Value

Q6. A. What factors influence the frictional resistance of a ship and what formula is used to calculate the resistance? B. A ship of 12000 tonne displacement has a rudder 15m2 in area, whose centre is 5m below the waterline.  The metacentric height of the ship is 0.3m and the centre of buoyancy is 3.3m below the waterline.  When travelling at 20 knots the rudder is turned through 30 .  Find the initial angle of heel if the force Fn perpendicular to the plane of the rudder is given by:  Fn=577 Av2 sin  N, Allow 20% for the race effect.

Q6. A. Describe information which is available in the record which is attached as a supplement to the IOPP Certificate, for a bulk carriers and oil tanker.

B. What are the provisions for engine room under MARPOL 73/78 Annex -1, for large ocean-going vessels?

C. What is IBC Code and what Certificates are issued under the Code and to which ship?

Q8. Explain how each of the following conditions contributes to the satisfactory performance of oil centrifuges. A. Correct bowl speed; B. Cleanliness of bowl; C. Low rate of feed to the bowl; D. Contaminated oil preheated prior to centrifuging; E. Contaminated oil allowed standing for an appreciable time prior to centrifuging.

Q7. A. Describe the no-load saturation characteristic of a d.c. generator.

B. A d.c. motor takes an armature current of 110 A at 480 V. The resistance of the armature circuit is 0.2 . The machine has six poles and the armature is lap-connected with 864 conductors. The flux per pole is 0.05 Wb. Calculate;

(i) The speed;

(ii) The gross torque developed by the armature.

Q7. With reference to burning of residual fuel- A. State what is meant by ignition quality; B. Describe how fuel pumps are adjusted to enable the engine to burn fuels of different ignition qualities; C. State with reasons what other adjustments may be required with fuel pumps after a period of time in service; D. Explain the consequences of not making adjustments mentioned in answers (B) and (C).

Q7. Discuss the causes of corrosion and the means by which corrosion of the following may be limited by manufacturers and ship’s personnel respectively:

A. Internal and External surfaces of auxiliary steam lines;

B. External surfaces of auxiliary boilers;

C. Water boxes of seawater coolers and condensers;

D. Main sea water inlet pipes.

Q6. A. State, with reasons, the causes of fatigue cracking of engineering components; B, State, with reasons how material and design defects can influence fatigue life. C. With reference to engine bed plate transverse girders explain how the incidence of fatigue cracking can be minimized.

Q9. Explain the purpose of on-board training and how you as second engineer would conduct a training session for trainee engineers who have joined the vessel for the first time with respect to: A. Use of firefighting equipment on board; B. Maintenance of fixed firefighting equipment; C. Operation of boiler; D. Operation of oily water separator; E. Maintenance filter and trunks of the galley air extraction fan.

Q8. A. Why is it important in a tender ship to keep the double bottom tanks pressed up?

B. A ship of 6000 tonne displacement has a wetted surface area of 2500 m2 and a speed of 15 knots.

(i) Calculate the corresponding speed and wetted surface area of as similar ship of 2000 tonne displacement.

(ii) If the ship resistance is of the form R=0.45 S V1.83 N; find the resistance of the 6000 tonne Ship.

Q6.(a) Suggest four reasons why the temperature of the oil in the steering gear system may  become excessive.

(b) With reference to steering gears explain how the ship may be steered in each of the following circumstances;

(i) destruction by fire of the primary supply cable;

(ii) destruction by fire of the telemotor lines;

(iii) bearing failure in the running pump;

Q8. A. What is back emf? Derive the relation for the back emf and the supplied voltage in terms of armature resistance.

B. A three- phase induction motor is wound for four poles and is supplied from a 50 Hz system. Calculate.

i. The synchronous speed; (4)

ii. The speed of the rotor when the slip is 4 per cent; (3)

iii. The rotor frequency when the speed of the rotor is 600 r/min. (2)

Q1. A. State the reasons for the progressive slackness of an engine camshaft drive chain in service;

B. State the effect chain stretch has on engine timing and performance;

C. Describe how correct timing is restored when chain stretch becomes excessive.

Q8. A. What are the factors which determine the synchronous speed of a motor?

B. Three conductors fitted side by side in the stator of a salient-pole alternator. Each generates maximum voltage of 200V (sinusoidal). The angle subtended at the centre of the stator between adjacent conductors is 20 electrical degrees. If the three conductors are connected in series, find

(i) the r.m.s. value of the effective voltage and

(ii) the ‘breadth factor’. Using the theory that is the basis of this problem, give one reason why three-phase current has been introduced.

Q3. Explain the principle of port State control and give in detail the verification the Port State Control Officer may carry out with particular reference to the following;

A. Emergency generator; B. Auxiliary steering gear; C. Lifeboat engine; D. Bilge pumps; E. SOPEP.

Q7. A box barge 45 m long and 15 m wide floats at a level keel draught of 2 m in sea water, the load being uniformly distributed over the full length. Two masses, each of 30 tonne, are loaded at 10 m from each end and 50 tonne is evenly distributed between them. Sketch the shear force diagram and give the maximum shear force.

Q2. With reference to reciprocating air compressors explain the cause of the following faults.

A. Collapse of discharge valve springs;

B. Breakage of plate valves;

C. Overheating of the discharge air with an unrestricted air intake;

D. Inoperative piston rings.

Q9. With reference to large fabricated bed plates explain: A. With reason, why longitudinal strength and rigidity is important in spite of the contributions made by ship’s structure. B. With sketches show how the combustions loads imposed on piston and cylinder heads are transmitted to and absorbed by bed plates

Q2. With reference to reciprocating air compressors explain why.

A. Clearance volume is critical to efficiency.

B. Spring-loaded plate valves are invariably used.

C. Compression is accomplished in apparently unequal stages.

D. Inter cooling is used between stages.

Q10.  The breadth of the upper edge of a deep tank bulkhead is 12 metres. The vertical heights of the bulkhead at equidistant intervals across it are 0, 3, 5, 6, 5, 3 and 0 metres respectively. Find the depth of the centre of pressure below the waterline when the tank is filled to a head of 2 metres above the top of the tank.

Q10. A. List the factors that determine the starting torque of the three-phase induction motor. How does this torque generally compare with the value of the rated torque? B. A twelve-pole, three-phase, delta-connected alternator runs at 600 rev/min and supplies a balanced star-connected load. Each phase of the load is a coil of resistance 35 ohm and inductive reactance 25 ohm. The line terminal voltage of the alternator is 440V. Determine (a) frequency of supply, (b) current in each coil, (c) current in each phase of the alternator, (d) total power supplied to the load.