DieselShip's Online Content Library

Q1. A. Sketch and describe a total flooding CO2 gas system suitable for the protection of machinery spaces; B. State, with reasons, which valve should be operated first in the system shown in (A).

Q3. A. With reference to the underwater surface of a ship’s hull; i. Describe a hull plate roughness analyser system;

ii. State the significance of the roughness profile and compare the typical roughness values for a new ship and a ship eight years old;

B. Which reference to the application of self-polishing paint in dry dock - i. Describe the plate preparation necessary;

ii. State the defects that may occur in the paint coating if it is not correctly applied.

Q1. The vessel of which you are 2nd engineer suffers grounding. Describe the survey and inspection which you will carry out at the next dry docking of the vessel in a foreign port.

Q3. A. Give a brief outline of the care maintenance that should be given to the stator and rotor of an A.C. generator;

B. Explain what is likely to occur if the driving power of one A.C. generator suddenly fails when two generators are running in parallel. What safety devices are usually provided for such events?

Q1. Explain with sketches the various fitments/methods by which the crankcase of large marine diesel engine is protected

Q1. With regard to care of lubricating oils onboard, answer the following:

(a)  Microbial degradation of lubricating oil and measures to prevent the same

(b)  Methods of ensuring correct sampling is done for the purpose of shore based testing.

(c)  If the shore based testing results show an abnormal values of water content and TBN for the crank case lub oil of a slow speed main engine, what will be interpretation and subsequent action?

Q1. With reference to membrane tanks for the carriage of liquefied gas at very low temperatures. A. Describe with a sketch one method of building up the insulation; B. State which alloy is used for the membrane and the reason; C. Describe with the aid of a sketch, how the tanks are located and supported. i) Longitudinally; ii) Transversely

Q2: The ‘Potentially Hazardous Situations’ when every watertight door in a passenger ship must be closed except when a person is passing through it. B. With reference to watertight doors, state - i) The test drills that must be carried out; ii) The speed of closure of power operated doors; C.  State where, the information asked for in (A), (B) can be obtained.

Q3. Compare methods of obtaining speed regulation of three-phase induction motor generally used in tankers by means of:

A. Rotor resistance; B. Cascade system; C. Pole-changing.

Give examples where each system may be employed with advantage.

Q2. With reference to reciprocating air compressors explain the cause of the following faults.

A. Collapse of discharge valve springs;

B. Breakage of plate valves;

C. Overheating of the discharge air with an unrestricted air intake;

D. Inoperative piston rings.

Q8. Explain why the use of residual fuels for the operation of large slow speed or of medium speed engines, may be responsible for the following problems with turbocharger nozzles, shrouds and blades and how in each, the problem may be minimized:

A. Build-up of deposits.

B. Hot corrosion.

C. Erosion (16)

Q2. A. Describe the procedure to be adopted for the inspection of a safety valve fitted to an exhaust gas fired auxiliary boiler stating, with reasons, which parts should receive particularly close attention.

B. Describe the procedure for the setting of safety valves of exhaust gas operated auxiliary boilers;

C. Explain the required action a watch-keeping engineer should take after the setting of safety valves as in (B)

Q3. A. make a detailed sketch of a non - portable 136-liter foam fire extinguisher; B. Briefly explain how to operate the foam extinguisher; C. State the two constituents used, which enable stable foam to be produced; D. State for what approximate length of time, the extinguisher should generate foam; E. Where on board ship would you expect such an extinguisher to be located?

Q4. Describe a forced ventilation system for the machinery spaces and a natural ventilation system for a lower hold. Why hold ventilation is considered necessary?

Q4. A. Explain how the efficiency and regulation of a transformer can be assessed by open circuit and short circuit tests?

B. What is meant by equivalent resistance?

Q3. A. What provision is made to avoid damage to steering engines when they are situated adjacent to the rudder stock? B. Describe a steering system showing how it is controlled from bridge; C. What is hunting gear? D. Describe its action?

Q7. Sketch and Discuss the precautions and protections that are provided to minimize the possibility of a diesel engine crank case explosion and the transmission of dangerous flame into the machinery space;

A. By design and equipment; B. By operating personnel

Q6. With reference to hydraulic system for deck machinery identify: A. The types of contamination likely to be found in hydraulic systems for deck machinery; B. The sources of such impurities; C. Means used to prevent problems with contamination; D. Possible effects of the oil contamination on the system.

Q6. A. Sketch a Main Engine air starting system and describe how it operates. B. List the safety devices and interlocks incorporated in such a system and state the purpose of each

Q7. With respect to trim and stability, describe the following - A. Effects on centre of gravity of slack tanks; B. Effect on stability of ice formation on superstructure; C. Effects of wind and waves on ship’s stability; D. Effect of water absorption by deck cargo and retention of water on deck.

Q5. If a small amount of oil is spilled during bunkering and causes a sheen upon the water, state what should be the procedure adopted for pollution control, information to authorities and subsequent bunkering practice.

Q4. With reference to a 3 speed a.c. cage motor driven cargo winch:

A. Sketch a circuit diagram for a pole change motor;

B. Describe how speed change and braking are achieved.

Q4. As a 2nd engineer prepare a list of the operating and maintenance procedure you would institute for care of the main engine giving reason for each procedure and the trouble likely to arise from neglect of such procedure.

Q4. Enumerate the causes of vibration in diesel machinery and shafting. Describe procedures by which it may be reduced by operating personnel, suitable design and devices. State the possible effects of vibration on machinery and crewmembers.

Q6. With reference to electro-hydraulic steering gears:

A. Explain in terms of control parlance, the function of the “Hunting gear”;

B. Explain the consequences if the standby pumping unit is motored;

C. State TWO methods employed to prevent the standby hydraulic pump being motored by the operating unit.

Q6. A. Describe a vacuum sewage system;

B. With reference to the system described in (A) - i. State ONE advantage of the system;

ii. State why a holding tank may be required to be fitted to the system;

iii. State the problems resulting from the retention of untreated sewage in a holding tank.

Q4. With reference to the prevention of hull corrosion discusses:

A. Surface preparation and painting of new ship plates.

B. Design of the ships structure and its maintenance. C. Catholic protection by sacrificial anodes, of the internal and external areas of the ship.

Q6. A. Describe the survey procedure of an oil lubricated stern bearing and shaft. (8)

B. Explain how the integrity of the outboard seal of an oil lubricated stern tube may be proved before the dry-dock is flooded. (8)

Q5. With reference to the condition monitoring of electrical machinery:

A. State TWO important parameters that may be recorded;

B. Explain how the parameters are measured and what defects may be revealed.

Q5. Name the factors an engine designer considers in the selection of the compression ratio for a compression ignition engine. Give some examples of compression ratio values.

Q6. A. Explain how and why the performance of reciprocating air compressor tends to “fall off” in service. B. State how “fall off” is indicated and to what extent permissible before correction; C. Describe how optimum performance is restored; D. What is the significance of clearance volume: for reciprocating air compressors.

Q6. A box-shaped pontoon is 36 meters long, 4 meters wide and floats in salt water at drafts F-2.00m, A-4.00m. Find the new drafts if the pontoon now passes into fresh water.

Q5. With reference to the following two types of dispersants explain what they are, and where are used: A. Conventional dispersant; B. Concentrate dispersant.

Q6. A. Describe the effect of the following loads on power factor: -

(i) Induction motors; (ii) Transformers; (iii) Partly loaded motors; (iv) Cage type motors.

B. In a 50-Kav, star-connected, 440-V, 3-phase, 50-Hz alternator, the effective armature resistance is 0.25 ohm per phase. The synchronous reactance is 3.2 ohm per phase and leakage reactance is 0.5 ohm phase. Determine at rated load and unity power factor:

(a) Internal e.m.f Ea (b) no-load e.m.f E0 (c) percentage regulation on full-load (d) value of synchronous reactance which replaces armature reaction.

Q6. A. Sketch and describe the construction and operation a life boat which handbrake and centrifugal brake. B. What maintenance do the brakes require? C. At what lowering velocity does the centrifugal brake operate?

Q6. A. State the various types of indicator diagrams that are used to assess engine performance; B. Specify the additional data needed in conjunction with these diagrams; C. Explain, how some abnormalities in indicator diagrams can be traced to the indicator; D. Describe the precautions necessary to avoid indicator malfunctions.

Q6.a) Define the cause and effect of thermal stressing in cylinder heads, liners, and pistons.

Explain why thermal stressing is aggravated with an increase in the cylinder bore.

Explain how stress concentration and it's effects is relieved by maintenance and operational practices.

Q7. A. Explain how to distinguish between list and loll and describe how to return the ship to the upright in each case. B. A ship 120m long has a light displacement of 4000 tonne and LCG in this condition 2.5m aft of midships.  The following items are then added:

Using the following hydrostatic data, calculate the fine draughts:

Q8. With reference to UMS engine remote control and monitoring system: In the event of complete failure of such monitoring and control system state, with reasons, how you, as Second Engineer, would organize the engine room staff to ensure safe operation of the engine during; Normal deep sea conditions; Maneuvering; State, with reasons, SIX important engine parameters which should be manually monitored following failure of the UMS system. Explain how the cause of failure of the UMS system may be traced.

Q7. Describe an air receiver and explain clearly the purpose of the mounting. State the defects which may develop and explain the precaution which should be taken to minimize the possibility of deterioration OR damage of air receiver

Q7. A. By means of a schematic circuit diagram illustrate the peak rectifier. If the supply voltage is v(t) = Vm Sin wt, what is the voltage across the load resistor?

B. A battery-charging circuit is shown below in Fig. The forward resistance of the diode can be considered negligible and the reverse resistance infinite. The internal resistance of the battery is negligible. Calculate the necessary value of the variable resistance R so that the battery charging current is 1.0 A.

Q7. A. State, with reasons, THREE properties required of crankcase oil which is to be used for a trunk piston main engine.

B. Explain how a representative sample of crankcase oil would be obtained from a trunk piston engine. C. Briefly describe the action to be taken if the crankcase oil charge cannot immediately be replaced and analysis shows – (i) Water is present; (ii) Alkalinity has fallen; (iii) Viscosity has changed appreciably; (iv) Carbon content has increased.

Q8. A) Explain how the distribution of masses affects rolling and pitching. (6)

B) A ship turns in a circle of radius 100 metres at a speed of 15 knots. The GM is 2/3 metres and BG is 1 metre. If g = 981 cm/sec2 and 1 knot is equal to 1.8532 Km/hour, find the heel due to turning. (10)

Q8. A. Explain the principles underlying the STCW Convention; B. Explain how as a senior engineer you would implement the regulation for controlling and monitoring of minimum hours of rest for watch keepers; C. What type of specific shipboard familiarization is required to be given? D. List the areas in which training is required and areas it is desirable.

Q8. Write short notes on the following; A. Measures to stop exhaust gas leakage in the engine room; B. Measures to stop oil leakages in the engine room.

Q8. A. Why is it important to maintain high efficiency of operation?  And low values of voltages regulation for power transformers?

B. A 100 KVA transformer has 400 turns on the primary and 80 turns on the secondary. The primary and secondary resistances are 0.3 and 0.01 respectively, and the corresponding leakage reactance’s are 1.1 and 0.035 respectively. The supply voltage is 2200 V. Calculate:

(i) The equivalent impedance referred to the primary circuit;

(ii) The voltage regulation and secondary terminal voltage for full load having a power factor of (i) 0.8 lagging and (ii) 0.8 leading.

Q6. A. A number of main engine cylinder covers have been subjected to cracking during the preceding four months –

i. Explain possible reasons for this cracking;

ii. State with reasons the action you, as Second Engineer, would take in order to reduce the possibility of future cylinder cover cracking.

B. Cylinder liner wear has increased appreciably during the past six months. Write a brief report to the engineering superintendent concerning this matter explaining the possible causes the immediate action taken to deal with the problem and the action you, as Second Engineer, intend to take in order to reduce the risk of future incidents.

Q8. A set of indicator diagrams including draw cards has been taken for a main diesel engine. Examine critically the following if the compression curve is normal - i. The maximum pressure is lower; ii. The maximum pressure is higher; iii. The expansion curve is lower; iv. The expansion curve is higher; B. Describe how the faults as mentioned above can be rectified

Q4. A. Draw a plan to deal with fire in accommodation, including co-ordination with shore facilities in port, taking account of the ship’s fire control plan;

B. Explain how drills and practices should be-organized with reference to the above.

Q9. A) Describe the effect of cavitations on the propeller blades. (6)

B) A propeller 4.6m diameter has a pitch of 4.3m and boss diameter of 0.75 m. The real slip is 28% at 95 rev/min. Calculate the speed of advance, thrust and thrust power.  (10)

Q9. Explain What is meant by, and the significance of, four of the following terms.

I. Voltage Stabilization,

II. Filter choke;

III. Impedance,

IV. Rectification,

V. Grid bias voltage.

Q5. With reference to air receivers and bottles explain with reasons: A. Why regular systematic internal inspection is advisable? B. Which internal areas of large receivers should receive particularly close examination? C. How bottles are inspected internally and what parts should be closely examined? D. How the condition of a bottle or receiver that cannot be inspected internally is checked?

Q9. A.  Difficulty has been experienced in maintaining engine speed at the set value; State THREE possible causes. State how each of these causes may be detected.

B. Describe the action to be taken in order to ensure safe operation of the main engine plant in the event of complete failure of the remote control and sensing equipment.

Q9. With respect to Diesel Engines, describe the cause of - i. Piston rings that is too tight in the piston grooves; ii. Corrosion of piston rings; iii. Piston grooves that are worn; iv. Piston rings that is too slack with piston grooves. B. Describe the effect of each of the faults listed above and the remedial action for each.

Q10. A) Describe the stability requirements of a ship for dry-docking. (6)

B) A ship 130m long displaces 14000 tonne when floating at draughts of 7.5m forward and 8.10m aft. GML – 125m, TPC – 18, LCF-3m aft of midships. Calculate the final draughts when a mass of 180 tonne lying 40m aft of midships is removed from the ship. (10)

Q7. A. Which of the following three motors has the poorest speed regulation: shunt motor, series Motor or cumulative compound motor? Explain.

B. A 440V shunt motor takes an armature current of 30A at 700 rev/min. The armature resistance is 0.7ohm. If the flux is suddenly reduced by 20 per cent, to what value will the armature current rise momentarily? Assuming unchanged resisting torque to motion, what will be the new steady values of speed and armature current? Sketch graphs showing armature current and speed as functions of time during the transition from initial to final, steady-state conditions.