DieselShip's Online Content Library

Q1. a) According to Article 2 of the Maritime Labour Convention (MLC) 2006, what are the essential elements that must be included in a Seafarers' Employment Agreement (SEA)? How does the SEA ensure the protection of seafarers' rights? (10)

b) Explain how CBAs are used to negotiate and establish the terms and conditions of employment for seafarers under the MLC 2006. How do CBAs contribute to ensuring fair wages, working conditions, and dispute resolution for seafarers? (10)

Q1. Explain the thermodynamic cycle involved in the air conditioning system on board a ship, detailing the key components and their functions. Additionally, describe the unloading and loading mechanisms used in the system to maintain efficiency and manage varying cooling loads. (16)

Q1. Common rail fuel injection systems have made a come back in marine diesel engines, the older mechanically controlled system have been replaced by electronic/hydraulic controlled system. Describe, with a line diagram any one type of a modern CR system, mentioning the engine type. (8)

b) Compare the advantages and disadvantages of the common rail fuel injection systems with the jerk type of injection system. Give examples of their use in modern diesel engines. (8)

Q1. A. Explain in detail, how an underwater survey is carried out. (7)

B. State the requirements to be fulfilled before an underwater survey is acceptable to the survey authority. (5)

C. Construct a list of the items in order of importance that the underwater survey authority should include. (4)

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Q3. With reference to Underwater Inspection in lieu of Dry docking (UWILD)

A. Explain in detail, how an underwater survey is carried out. (6)

B. State the requirements to be fulfilled before an underwater survey is acceptable to the survey authority. (5)

C. Construct a list of the items in order of importance that the underwater survey authority should include. (5)

Q1. A. What is intrinsic electric safety? (6)

B. Can live maintenance be done on intrinsically safe circuits? (5)

C. Describe intrinsically safe equipment used on board ship. (5)

Q1. Explain the working principle of differential pressure transmitter with the help of diagram and explain the following parts with their usages. (16)

A. Zero and span calibration

B. Negative feedback bellow

C. Pilot amplifier functions

D. Zero elevation concept.

Q2. a) What is the meaning of “de-rating” of machinery? (5)

b) Explain the principles behind de-rating a ship propulsion engine as a retro fit and the benefits. (6)

c) Can a de-rated engine be run at full power? If yes, under what conditions? (5)

Q2. a) What is the purpose of the International Maritime Dangerous Goods (IMDG) Code, and how does it ensure the safe transportation of dangerous goods by sea? Discuss the structure and classification system used in the IMDG Code. (10)

b) How does the IMDG Code address the packaging, labelling, and documentation requirements for dangerous goods? Explain the responsibilities of ship operators and crew members in complying with the IMDG Code during cargo handling and transport. (10)

Q2. a) Sketch and describe a high-pressure cut-out in a refrigeration system. (6)

b) The refrigeration compressor has stopped due to operation of the H.P. cut-out. (6)

Explain: (i) The possible causes.

ii) How these causes would be found and possible remedies.

c) What steps are taken if the compressor “Short-cycle” on low pressure cut-out? (4)

Previously Asked As

Q8. With reference to Air-conditioning system onboard your vessel:

(a) Sketch and describe high pressure cut-out in a refrigeration system.

(b) The refrigeration compressor has stopped due to operation of the h.p cut-out Explain.

(i) The possible cause.

(ii) How these causes would be found and possible remedies.

(c) What steps are taken if the compressor “short-cycle” on low pressure cut-out?

Q2. With reference to testing High Voltage equipment:

(a) Explain why earthing down is considered essential. (3)

(b) Briefly describe the procedures of earthing down (3)

(c) describe how an insulation resistance test is carried out on High Voltage equipment, making reference to personnel safety; (4)

(d) Describe, with the aid of a sketch, a method to detect earth leakage in EACH of the following systems: (6)

(i) Earthed

(ii) Insulated

Q2. If a ship is seriously damaged under water in way of a large fuel oil side bunker tank what is the immediate effect and what may ultimately happen? What features in the ship would enhance safety? (16)

Q2. With regard to the main turbine lubrication oil system:

a) (i) Describe the effects of tin oxide corrosion; (5)

(ii) Explain the actions to be taken if this occurs in a high-pressure turbine thrust bearing. (5)

b) Discuss the factors that determine the various filtration sizes: (6)

Q3. a) What is the working principle of a plate type cooler on a ship, and what are its main components? How does it differ from other types of heat exchangers used on ships? (6)

b) What materials are commonly used for the packing in plate type coolers on board ships, and how do these materials impact the efficiency and durability of the cooler? (5)

c) Describe the process of back flushing a plate type cooler on a ship. Why is back flushing important, and what potential issues can it prevent or mitigate. (5)

Q3. (a) Briefly discuss the principle and the key components and elements of an ICCP system, outlining their functions in safeguarding the integrity of metal structures on ships. (8)

(b) Explore the advancements in ICCP technology over the years and how these innovations contribute to more efficient and sustainable corrosion protection. (8)

Q3.a) With reference to Port State Control, discuss:

(i) Regional cooperation /agreements. (6)

(ii) Future of port State control an effective tool for ship safety? (6)

b) Define a sub-standard vessel and give examples of detainable items under SOLAS. (8)

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Q9.a) With reference to Port State Control, discuss (i) Regional cooperation /agreements.

(ii) Future of port State control an effective tool for ship safety?

b) Define a sub-standard vessel and give examples of detainable items under SOLAS, MARPOL, STCW and LL Conventions.

Q3. Crankcase oil mist detectors (OMD) have undergone significant changes in recent years. Compare the modern multiple sensor type,  with the traditional single sensor type OMDs. where sampling was done sequentially. What is meant by addressable sensors? (16)

Q3. A. Sketch a transverse section through the hold space of a container ship hull. (8)

B. Referring to the sketch in (A) describe how adequate structural strength is built into the hull. (8)

Q3. Explain What is meant by, and the significance of, four of the following terms. (16)

I. Voltage Stabilization

II. Filter choke

III. Impedance

IV. Rectification

V. Grid bias voltage.

Q4. Name various statutory Certificates and Documents to be carried on board Oil tanker in Indian coast giving reference to the conventions and justify for their requirement. (20)

Q4. Following a recent turbocharger (T/C) overhaul, it has been observed that the scavenge air pressure is lower than before, and the engine power output has also been reduced.

a) State the possible causes of the problem with reasons. (5)

b) State the engine operational information that should be gathered to detect the possible causes of the problem, along with reasons for each type of information. (5)

c) State the instructions which should be issued with respect to future T/C overhauls in order to prevent similar incidents. (6)

Q4. Discuss the importance of the following to be examined for meeting EEDI limitations: (16)

A. Slimmer vessels with lower block coefficients;

B. Long-Stroke engines;

C. Low revolution large diameter propellers.

Q4. Explain the meaning of ‘P’ and ‘N’ types semi-conductor materials and give a brief description of the mechanism by which current passes through them. (16)

Q4. (a) What different methods are used for preserving ship’s hull during service. What type of Antifouling coats are used. (8)

(b) State what materials are being banned by international regulation for use in Antifouling coats and the reason for banning. (4)

(c) Discuss briefly how does paint coating on deck differ from that on super structure. (4)

Q4. Discuss the significance of cylinder lubrication in two stroke diesel engines considering the impact of Annex VI of Marpol 73/78. Explain:

(a) Two level cylinder lubrication incorporated on few diesel engines. (8)

(b) The effect of over and under lubrication on engines. (8)

Q5. a) Briefly describe the cargo hold fire detection system on a bulk carrier, and how does the system function to detect and alert the crew to the presence of a fire? (10)

b) Give reasons why fire detectors in cargo holds differ from those in machinery spaces. (5)

c) Describe how to verify that each is in working order. (5)

--- PREVIOUSLY ASKED AS ---

2018/JAN/02

Q2. (a) Give reasons why fire detectors in cargo holds differ from those in machinery spaces. (b) Describe how to verify that each is in working order.

Q5. a) Sketch the cross-section of a bulk carrier with either deep or shallow double bottom showing the type of framing used. (8)

b) i) Describe the corrosion problems experienced with ballast tanks. (4)

ii) State how such tanks are protected against extensive corrosion. (4)

Q5. With reference to electronic control systems:

A. Draw a simple block diagram for temperature control. (8)

B. Describe each component shown in the diagram in (a).  (8)

Q5. Sketch and show all parts of two-stroke engine’s Stuffing box. Describe the procedure of  in place (Without removing piston) overhauling two stroke engine’s Stuffing box. Your answer should include all safety precautions taken and proper tools used during overhaul of Stuffing box. (16)

Q5. With regards to modern diesel engines revolution pick up sensor. discuss with suitable diagram the following:

a) functioning of revolution pick up sensor.

b) adjustment of pick up sensor.

c) adjustment of rotary encoder.

d) adjustment of pulse angle offset. (16)

Q5. An engine room is operating in the unmanned (UMS) mode, in the event of a failure of the UMS systems explain the arrangements a second engineer officer should introduce to operate the machinery in manual mode for a passage of 10 days duration. (16)

Q6. A. Explain the term angle of loll and state what, if any dangers it poses to a vessel. (6)

B. A propeller has a pitch ratio of 0.95. When turning at 120 rev/min the real slip is 30%, the wake fraction 0.28 and the ship speed 16 knots. The thrust is found to be 400 KN, the torque 270 KN-m and the QPC 0.67. Calculate:

i. The propeller diameter

ii. The shaft power

iii The propeller efficiency

iv. The thrust deduction factor. (10)

Q6. Discuss on the following with respect to MARPOL Annex-V. (20)

a) Domestic waste and operational waste.

b) Garbage Management plan and record keeping.

c) Discharge of Garbage outside special areas.

d) Discharge of Garbage within special areas.

Q6. a) Derive the expression for current and voltage relations between line and phase values in the star and delta cases. Draw vector diagram. (6)

b) A balanced delta connected load is connected to a 415V, 50 Hz Supply. If the per phase impedance of the load is (8+j12) ohm, calculate (i) the phase current of the load. (ii) line current (iii) power consumed by each phase. (10)

Q6. (a) Describe how it is determined whether a crankshaft was twisted during a major “smash up” in a main engine. (4)

(b) Explain where twisting is most likely to occur. (4)

(c) Specify with reasons the degree of twisting that might be accommodated without correction (4)

(d) Explain briefly what adjustments and precautions should be instituted when putting an engine with a twisted crankshaft back into service. (4)

Q6. a) Sketch and describe a valve suitable for reducing air pressure maintaining the reduced pressure within close limits. (8)

b) Describe the processes through which air from the starting air receivers should be treated before it is used in a pneumatic control system. (8)

Q6. With respect to large two stroke crosshead main engines;

A. Sketch and describe a crosshead designed to prevent or minimize bearing edge loading. (8)

B. State how the arrangement describe a achieves its purpose. (4)

C. What would be an acceptable range of bearing clearance for the top end bearing and bottom end bearings of a large two-stroke marine diesel engine. (4)

Q7. a) What is the Carbon Intensity Indicator (CII) and how is it calculated under IMO regulations? Explain its significance in reducing the carbon footprint of ships. (10)

b) What role does the Second Engineer play in ensuring compliance with CII requirements on a ship? Discuss the operational strategies and maintenance practices that the Second Engineer can implement to improve a ship's CII rating. (10)

Q7. a) Give the approximate composition, and the properties of the following metals:

(i) Manganese bronze, (ii) Cupro-nickel, (iii) Babbitts metal. (8)

In each case give two examples of the metals in use on board ship and explain why the metal is chosen for the applications you mention.

b) Explain the difference between "strength" and "stiffness" of steel. Discuss the importance of these properties in shipboard structural members and machinery.

components. (8)

Q7. Describe how a jerk type of fuel pump is replaced, making specific reference to initial setting and governor connections. Explain how the actual and effective strokes are adjusted. Identify the common faults of these pumps. State how engine performance is affected by each of these faults and why prompt attention is necessary. (16)

Q7. a) To improve the power-to-weight ratio of an engine, it is necessary to increase the MEP. Discuss the importance of turbocharger compression ratio in this regard. Why has it become necessary to introduce two-stage turbocharging? (8)

b) With reference to turbochargers with variable turbine area, explain (8)

i) Which area is varied

ii) Why is it varied

iii) How is it varied.

Q7. A. What factors influence the frictional resistance of a ship and what formula is used to calculate the resistance? (6)

B. A ship of 12000 tonne displacement has a rudder 15m2 in area, whose centre is 5m below the waterline.  The metacentric height of the ship is 0.3m and the centre of buoyancy is 3.3m below the waterline.  When travelling at 20 knots the rudder is turned through 30 deg.  Find the initial angle of heel if the force Fn perpendicular to the plane of the rudder is given by:  Fn=577 Av2 (sin alpha) N, Allow 20% for the race effect. (10)

Q7. A. Discuss different methods of speed control of a d.c. series motor by adjusting field ampere turns. (6)

B. A 230 V, d.c. shunt motor runs at 1000 r.p.m and takes 5 amperes. The armature resistance of the motor is 0.025𝛀 and shunt field resistance is 230𝛀. Calculate the drop in speed when the motor is loaded and takes the line current of 41 amperes. Neglect armature reaction. (10)

Q8. a) Compare the working principles and applications of the turbine used in cargo oil pumps with the turbine in a turbocharger on board a ship. How do the design and operational requirements differ between these two types of turbines? (8)

b) What methods are employed to vary the speed of a cargo oil turbine on board a ship, and how do these methods ensure precise control of cargo operations? (4)

c) What is the role of a vacuum condenser in the cargo system of an oil tanker, and how does it contribute to the efficiency and safety of cargo operations? (4)

Q8. With reference to a lifeboat gravity davit arrangement:

A. Sketch the arrangement showing the lifeboat both in the housed position and at its maximum point of outboard travel. (12)

B. Describe the lowering and raising of life boat stating the safety features and the requirement as per SOLAS 74, with respect to time for hoisting. (8)

Q8. A. Why is it important in a tender ship to keep the double bottom tanks pressed up? (6)

B. A ship of 6000 tonne displacement has a wetted surface area of 2500 m2 and a speed of 15 knots.

(i) Calculate the corresponding speed and wetted surface area of a similar ship of 2000 tonne displacement.

(ii) If the ship resistance is of the form R=0.45 S (V^1.83 N); find the resistance of the 6000 tonne Ship. (10)

Q8. A. What are the factors which determine the synchronous speed of a motor? (6)

B. The star-connected rotor of an induction motor has a stand-still reactance of 4.5 ohms/phase and a resistance of 0.5 /phase. The motor has an induced emf of 50 V between the slip-rings at stand-still on open circuit when connected to its normal supply voltage. Find the current in each phase and the power factor at start when the slip-ring is short-circuited. (10)

Q8. Explain why the use of residual fuels for the operation of large slow speed or of medium speed engines, may be responsible for the following problems with turbocharger nozzles, shrouds and blades and how in each, the problem may be minimized:

A. Build-up of deposits.

B. Hot corrosion.

C. Erosion (16)

Q8. With reference to feed regulation:

a) Describe, with the aid of sketches, the operation of a boiler feed water regulator controlled by at least two other parameters besides water level in the drum. (8)

b) Give reasons for the inclusion of the other elements besides water level in controlling feed flow. (4)

c) Deduce the possible effects on the system when the drain valve in the constant leg in the level transmitter starts to leak. (4)

Q9. Under Continuous survey of machinery (CSM) Cross head bearing of a large 2-stroke slow speed engine is due for survey.

a) As second engineer, explain the procedure involved in complete inspection of a Cross head bearing. (8)

b) List the precaution to be taken. (2)

c) Indicate the reasons for possible defects which could be encountered and state how they may be rectified. (3)

d) What test are carried out on completion of survey and re-assembly. (3)

Q9. A. Explain the effects on stability when a tank is partially filled with liquid. (6)

B) A box barge 45 m long and 15 m wide floats at a level keel draught of 2 m in sea water, the load being uniformly distributed over the full length. Two masses, each of 30 tonne, are loaded at 10 m from each end and 50 tonne is evenly distributed between them. Sketch the shear force diagram and give the maximum shear force. (10)

Q9. A. Explain the purpose of interpoles and state their magnetic polarity relative to the main poles of both generators and motors. (6)

B. A 200V, long-shunt compound-wound generator has a full-load output of 20kW. The various resistances are as follows: armature (including brush contact) 0.15 ohm, series field 0.025 ohm, interpole field 0.028 ohm, shunt field (including the field-regulator resistance) 115 ohm. The iron losses at full load are 780W, and the friction and windage losses 590W. Calculate the efficiency at full load. (10)

Q9. A. Sketch and describe a Pilgrim Nut for securing a propeller to the screw shaft. (8)

B. Describe how this device is used to loosen the propeller on the shaft when removal or inspection becomes necessary. (4)

C. Give reasons why this method is considered to be superior to all other methods. (4)

Q9. (a) Explain fatigue cracking, stating its causes and propagation. (8)

(b) Explain, how poor maintenance and engine overload may contribute to the risk of fatigue cracking of cylinder head holding studs. (8)

Q10. a) (i) What is direct-connected alternator? (3)

(ii) How is a direct-connected exciter arranged in an alternator? (3)

B. A 440V shunt motor takes an armature current of 30A at 700 rev/min. The armature resistance is 0.7ohm. If the flux is suddenly reduced by 20 per cent, to what value will the armature current rise momentarily? Assuming unchanged resisting torque to motion, what will be the new steady values of speed and armature current? Sketch graphs showing armature current and speed as functions of time during the transition from initial to final, steady-state conditions. (10)

Q10.  The breadth of the upper edge of a deep tank bulkhead is 12 metres. The vertical heights of the bulkhead at equidistant intervals across it are 0, 3, 5, 6, 5, 3 and 0 metres respectively. Find the depth of the centre of pressure below the waterline when the tank is filled to a head of 2 metres above the top of the tank. (16)